weird accuraterip thing

[bhoar]

Re: weird accuraterip thing

Ok I understand it now, but why is it 1 chance in 2^32 possibilities and not for example 2 chances in 2^32 possibilities? So where does the "1" come from, so how do you know exactly there is only 1 chance (and not more chances) out of 2^32 possibilities that both hash codes are the same even if the original data that was used to generate the hash code was different? Why could this not be 2/2^32 for example or some other number?

Your question above is exactly the same as this question:

"Why is there a 1 in 2 chance that the results will be heads when I flip a normal silver dollar? Why is it not a 2 in 2 chance?"

...so I am going to just state again that you need to ensure you have a good grounding in statistics and start researching on how hash functions work.

-brendan